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Archive for the Verbals, Gestures, & Actions: Bet Raise Fold Category

Calling with open cards

Tournament.Player A raise preflop 4000 chips on blinds 1000-2000. Only one player calls.The flop come out A,Q,4 and player A goes all-in 13 000. At the moment no floor or TD is present,and player B says that he is not folding and opens his cards holding AK. Player A makes a facial expression like : a great hand, a strong one. Immediately after that Player B says I call, but few other players objects and there is a bit confusion for dealer is that call by the rule and A opens his cards holding AQ. How to solve this situation?

How do you rule on these WSOP verbal situations?

Watched the 2008 WSOP 1st day this evening and saw a couple interesting situations involving no less than 2 champions… how would you rule here?

1) JOE HACHEM. Joe is contemplating a bet on the river that’s been checked to him. He’s got a good but not great hand and by rights can think he’s best here… so he starts mumbling… [paraphrasing]  ”I don’t feel good about this…. I think I have the best hand…. I’m just not sure…. I have to bet…. I’m just not sure… ” Hachem doesn’t make a bet right off at that point, continues to contemplate his situation…

 How do you rule at that point, has he committed to a bet or does this verbal rambling leave him an out?

 2) JERRY YANG. Yang has a fair hand but there’s a large bet to him. After a bit he starts mumbling… “…I can’t believe I’m laying this down…” but he doesn’t release his cards, just sits there contemplating….

How do you rule at this point ?

Ultimate folding a winning hand case.

Hello,

Let’s try to find a “regular” solution about this kind of case (knowing we will allways have to make special decisions):

NLH tournament - 5 players at the turn - pot 700 - player A goes all-in for 500 - B, C & D folds - A (forgetting E) throws his cards faces down in the middle - the dealer reach it quickly before it touch anything (to save it & give it back to A) while E is saying “I call” and push his chips in the middle - E pretend that A folded & ask for the floor … E made absoluely nothing meaning a fold befora A made his mistake … for information : A has the winning hand at 100% (E is drawing dead) …

For me the important point is that A is all-in (if not it would be more simple) … but I hate to have a player eliminated on a stupid error … anyway I’m ready to listen for some of your straight opinion with respect & apply it: should the players be protected or put into their responsabilities of adults … this is the real question!).

Your opinion ?

Dilemma: Fouled Board, Mucked Cards, Dealer Error…

I was dealing a rather large Texas Hold’em tournament the other night and I ran into a huge mistake that I made.  The scenario was as follows:

Blinds were 25-50 (rather early in the tournament).  Player A (seat 9) was under-the-gun and has pocket Queens and raises to a total of 300.  Player in seat 10 folds and Player B (seat 1) calls (Player B has pocket 7’s).  Everyone else folds and player in seat 8 says to Player A, “Oh, you won the pot!”  I, as the dealer, listening to what player in seat 8 said and totally forgetting that player B had called, moved all the chips to player A and threw all the remaining cards into the muck pile.  Player B says, “Hey, I called.  Why did you throw the rest of the cards into the muck pile?”  Realizing I had made a huge mistake and that legal action had already taken place I took all the cards, including those that were in the original muck card pile (since there was no way that I was able to determine what cards were what), re-shuffled, and brought out a burn card and the flop.  The flop included a 7 and Player A’s Queens were cracked.  Player A went all in and, of course, Player B called.  Player A was eliminated from the tournament.

Was I correct, regardless of human error?  If not, please tell me the correct way to correct this “MAJOR MISTAKE!!!”

Allin player leaves during a hand???

Hello All,

First post here and would love some insight…Do other poker rooms have a specific rule that covers players being at the table for the duration of a hand to be eligible to win a pot?

Scenario — No laughing now….(cash game 5/5 NL 100-500 spread)Player A allin preflop with 9d10c called by Player B with KcKs. Pot size is about $200.

Both hands are tabled and dealer deals flop (lets say rags 2d 5d 5h) at which point Player A decides he cannot win and leaves the poker pit, and then the casino (exit is close by)…

Unobservant dealer is not even aware that the player has left, deals the turn (a diamond) and the river (another diamond)…and then ships the pot to Player B at which point it is noticed there are 4 diamonds on the board and the raggedy Player A 9d10c wouldve won the pot!

We have no specific Poker rule that states what happens but there is a Poker etiquette policy (which may or may not have any legal standing)which states players must be at the table for the duration of a hand to be eligible to win the pot.

We do have a get out of jail rule which says “In the event that a situation is not covered under the rules of Poker, then the casino managament will make a fair and equitable decision that protects the integrity of the game of Poker.

So Question……Who would win the pot?? Does a casino have a responsibility to keep the money that “wouldve” been won by Player A and make every effort to locate him.

Poker Supervisor decision was to give the pot to the only eligible Player at the table in this case was Player B even though he had the losing hand per se…The argument was that Player A had abandoned his hand and therefore any chance of winning the pot and soon as he left the Poker Room (of his own accord)

Thanks for any insight…

Folding a winning hand!

Hello,

Here is again this typical situation:

Tournament - Two players left at the river: player A (on the left of the Dealer, place 1 or 2 and near the muck) raises … B takes is time and speaks a lot to try to guess A’s hand (but no move or no sound meaning a fold) … A imagining a fold (?) throws away his cards directly in the muck (!!!) … B pretend it’s a fold and claim for the pot (he had enought chips t pay the raise) … … … my ruling: because the amount was important for A (more than 50% of his stack) so for “the best interest of the game” and because for me a raiser can’t suddenly fold without being protected: I asked him for the exact cards and finded it quite quickly over the top of the muck: nearly the nuts! I gave him a warning (for playing out of turn creating a confusing situation) but exposed his hand alive while letting B decide to play free! Lot’s of complain from B … should I have killed A’s hand?

GG

Oversized chip rule…

Had a question come up with one of our floor folks last weekend.

Blinds are 300-600, and bets come around to SB with no raises. SB has 3 x 100 chips on the table, and tosses out a single 1000 chip.

Rules say this should be a call. Player argues that since there are already more than one chip out, this should be considered a raise.

Interested to hear the consensus.

Can player get more chips: Fwd Motion & betting line question

A player grabs a chips from their stack and makes a foward motion toward the pot.  The player never says anthing, nor does he actually release any chips into the pot.  The player notices they do not have the desired chips in their hand.  (Player thought they a had two $100 and one $1k chip, but actually they had two $100 and one $500 chip).  Since the chips were never released into the pot has the player exercised their foward motion and only limited to using the chips in their hand, or can they go back in to their stack?   We do not have a physical betting line on the table.  Many casinos let a player take a stack a chips and drop a partial part of the stack into the pot.  But this is different because it involoves two foward motions.  But if they never released any chips does it count?

Players All-In Showdown; Can a Hand Be Mucked Face Up ?

Here is the situation.. “friendly” sit & go. On the turn player A  is first to act, and Pushes all in, Player B, the only other player with a hand beats player A into the pot. Player B right away turns up his hand, showing trip kings. Player A (who is in seat 10 next to the dealer) puts his cards face down towards the dealer and releases them… saying a less friendly version of “Darn it”. Dealer Continues to put out the river card which is a Jack, at which point Player A reaches out to his cards that the dealer had not touched, and brings them back in to turn over Pocket Jacks. Pot is awarded top Player A with a full house JJJKK.  My question is this: Was it correct to rule that the Jacks were recoverable and not folded after they were placed face down towards the dealer. they had not hit the muck. Should the dealer have mucked the cards after they were placed in from of her? Should the river have been dealt after the apparent fold? Personally I think the pot was awarded correctly, but Player B had some questions about this.  If this had been a situation where player A had to call a bet, his actions were clearly a fold. But in this case, there is no reason to fold as all the chips are in the pot. (Player A had a few more chips than player B, though I don’t think the effects the action… I seems to be as long as the players cards were recoverable, that recovering them was the right thing to do. Thoughts? thanksemgee 

WSOP underbet

Hello, A friend of mine was playing a 2008 event when this happened to him:

Someone raised a pot going 3200 … my friend who didn’t noticed that (his own fault) said “1300″ (the amount he wanted to bet but under by more than 50% of the previous bet) … the floor came and ruled that my friend could choose between calling or folding BUT THE 1300 CHIPS WILL STAY ANYWAY IN THE POT!?!

I know this rule is applied in some casinos but didn’t know it was used in a major international tournament!?

 GG